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What is the Certification Worth of CompTIA CAS-004 Exam
CompTIA CAS-004 Advanced Security Practitioner certification exam, is the newest entry level certification in the CompTIA security certification series and is designed to give you the skills required to administer, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor a network of systems that use encryption and authentication services to enhance availability, integrity and confidentiality. The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner certification is one of the most established security certifications around which also included in CompTIA CAS-004 exam dumps. The CASP certification tests technical and leadership skills in the operation of continuous monitoring and threat identification, as well as understanding and directing a wide range of security functions. The CAS-004 exam validates that a candidate has enough experience for the job as a senior IT administrator and also satisfied all the requirements required by CompTIA, including four years of technical IT experience. Overflows question sample exam. Operations VCE files are available for free download from the CompTIA website. Digital prove trust are the only way to be completely confident at the enterprise level.
Virtualization controls have become a critical feature in many data center environments. Real environments' endpoint security top contain the need for virtualization controls. Hybrid resiliency networks are a common IT trend. Configurations analysis PDF cloud based storage vendors. The capabilities of hybrid networks are constantly growing, as the number of heterogeneous network elements continue to increase. Training scenario techniques can be very effective in helping the exam takers to learn more about the areas that they need to know about the support solutions.
Achieving the CompTIA CASP+ certification can lead to a variety of career opportunities, including positions such as security engineer, security architect, security consultant, and cybersecurity manager. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification also demonstrates to employers and clients that the candidate has the necessary skills and knowledge to implement effective security solutions and manage complex security environments. Overall, the CompTIA CASP+ certification is a valuable asset for security professionals looking to advance their careers and improve their knowledge and skills in the field of cybersecurity.
NEW QUESTION # 115
A security administrator configured the account policies per security implementation guidelines.
However, the accounts still appear to be susceptible to brute-force attacks. The following settings meet the existing compliance guidelines:
Must have a minimum of 15 characters
Must use one number
Must use one capital letter
Must not be one of the last 12 passwords used
Which of the following policies should be added to provide additional security?
- A. Account lockout
- B. Password history
- C. Password complexity
- D. Shared accounts
- E. Time-based logins
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 116
Leveraging cryptographic solutions to protect data that is in use ensures the data is encrypted:
- A. when it is passed across a local network.
- B. in memory during processing
- C. when it is written to a system's solid-state drive.
- D. by an enterprise hardware security module.
Answer: B
Explanation:
"in use" = processed in the memory
"at rest" = stored in drives etc
"in transit" = as data moves across media
NEW QUESTION # 117
A technician uses an old SSL server due to budget constraints and discovers performance degrades dramatically after enabling PFS.
The technician cannot determine why performance degraded so dramatically.
A newer version of the SSL server does not suffer the same performance degradation.
Performance rather than security is the main priority for the technician The system specifications and configuration of each system are listed below:
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the degradation in performance and should be changed?
- A. Decryption chips
- B. Connection requests
- C. Memory size
- D. Using RSA
- E. Using ECC
- F. Disk size
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 118
A security engineer has been asked to close all non-secure connections from the corporate network. The engineer is attempting to understand why the corporate UTM will not allow users to download email via IMAPS. The engineer formulates a theory and begins testing by creating the firewall ID 58, and users are able to download emails correctly by using IMAP instead. The network comprises three VLANs:
The security engineer looks at the UTM firewall rules and finds the following:
Which of the following should the security engineer do to ensure IMAPS functions properly on the corporate user network?
- A. Confirm the email server certificate is installed on the corporate computers.
- B. Create an IMAPS firewall rule to ensure email is allowed.
- C. Contact the email service provider and ask if the company IP is blocked.
- D. Make sure the UTM certificate is imported on the corporate computers.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 119
A university issues badges through a homegrown identity management system to all staff and students. Each week during the summer, temporary summer school students arrive and need to be issued a badge to access minimal campus resources. The security team received a report from an outside auditor indicating the homegrown system is not consistent with best practices in the security field and leaves the institution vulnerable.
Which of the following should the security team recommend FIRST?
- A. Beginning research on two-factor authentication to later introduce into the identity management system
- B. Investigating a potential threat identified in logs related to the identity management system
- C. Working with procurement and creating a requirements document to select a new IAM system/vendor
- D. Updating the identity management system to use discretionary access control
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 120
A security consultant needs to set up wireless security for a small office that does not have Active Directory.
Despite the lack of central account management, the office manager wants to ensure a high level of defense to prevent brute-force attacks against wireless authentication.
Which of the following technologies would BEST meet this need?
- A. Faraday cage
- B. WEP 128 bit
- C. WPA2 PSK
- D. WPA3 SAE
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
WPA3 SAE prevents brute-force attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 121
A security engineer is reviewing a record of events after a recent data breach incident that Involved the following:
* A hacker conducted reconnaissance and developed a footprint of the company s Internet-facing web application assets.
* A vulnerability in a third-party horary was exploited by the hacker, resulting in the compromise of a local account.
* The hacker took advantage of the account's excessive privileges to access a data store and exfiltrate the data without detection.
Which of the following is the BEST solution to help prevent this type of attack from being successful in the future?
- A. Web application firewall
- B. Software composition analysis
- C. User behavior analysis
- D. Secure web gateway
- E. Dynamic analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A web application firewall (WAF) is a security device that inspects web application traffic and can detect and prevent malicious activity such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and malicious file uploads. This type of attack could have been prevented if a WAF was in place to monitor and block malicious traffic. Resources:
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter 4: "Web Application Firewalls," Wiley,
2018. https://www.wiley.com/en-us/CompTIA+Advanced+Security+Practitioner+CASP%2B+Study+Guide%2C
NEW QUESTION # 122
Company A acquired Company . During an audit, a security engineer found Company B's environment was inadequately patched. In response, Company A placed a firewall between the two environments until Company B's infrastructure could be integrated into Company A's security program.
Which of the following risk-handling techniques was used?
- A. Accept
- B. Mitigate
- C. Transfer
- D. Avoid
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 123
Ann, a retiring employee, cleaned out her desk. The next day, Ann's manager notices company equipment that was supposed to remain at her desk is now missing.
Which of the following would reduce the risk of this occurring in the future?
- A. Implementation of an acceptable use policy
- B. Employee awareness and training policies
- C. Proper employee separation procedures
- D. Regular auditing of the clean desk policy
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 124
In order to authenticate employees who, call in remotely, a company's help desk staff must be able to view partial Information about employees because the full information may be considered sensitive. Which of the following solutions should be implemented to authenticate employees?
- A. Metadata
- B. Data scrubbing
- C. Field masking
- D. Encryption in transit
Answer: C
Explanation:
Field masking is a technique that hides or obscures part of the information in a data field, such as a password, credit card number, or social security number. Field masking can be used to protect sensitive or confidential data from unauthorized access or disclosure, while still allowing authorized users to view or verify the data.
Field masking should be implemented to authenticate employees who call in remotely by allowing the help desk staff to view partial information about employees, because field masking would:
Enable the help desk staff to verify the identity of the employees by asking them to provide some characters or digits from their data fields, such as their employee ID or email address.
Prevent the help desk staff from viewing the full information about employees, which may be considered sensitive and subject to privacy regulations or policies.
Reduce the risk of data leakage, theft, or misuse by limiting the exposure of sensitive data to only those who need it.
NEW QUESTION # 125
During a system penetration test, a security engineer successfully gained access to a shell on a Linux host as a standard user and wants to elevate the privilege levels.
Which of the following is a valid Linux post-exploitation method to use to accomplish this goal?
- A. Read the /etc/passwd file to extract the usernames.
- B. Spawn a shell using sudo and an escape string such as sudo vim -c '!sh'.
- C. Perform ASIC password cracking on the host.
- D. Use the UNION operator to extract the database schema.
- E. Initiate unquoted service path exploits.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference:
Spawning a shell using sudo and an escape string is a valid Linux post-exploitation method that can exploit a misconfigured sudoers file and allow a standard user to execute commands as root. ASIC password cracking is used to break hashed passwords, not to elevate privileges. Reading the /etc/passwd file may reveal usernames, but not passwords or privileges. Unquoted service path exploits are applicable to Windows systems, not Linux. Using the UNION operator is a SQL injection technique, not a Linux post-exploitation method. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-post-exploitation https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 126
Due to locality and budget constraints, an organization's satellite office has a lower bandwidth allocation than other offices in the organization. As a result, the local security infrastructure staff is assessing architectural options that will help preserve network bandwidth and increase speed to both internal and external resources while not sacrificing threat visibility.
Which of the following would be the BEST option to implement?
- A. Distributed connection allocation
- B. Local caching
- C. SD-WAN vertical heterogeneity
- D. Content delivery network
Answer: C
Explanation:
SD-WAN (software-defined wide area network) vertical heterogeneity is a technique that can help preserve network bandwidth and increase speed to both internal and external resources while not sacrificing threat visibility. SD-WAN vertical heterogeneity involves using different types of network links (such as broadband, cellular, or satellite) for different types of traffic (such as voice, video, or data) based on their performance and security requirements. This can optimize the network efficiency and reliability, as well as provide granular visibility and control over traffic flows. Distributed connection allocation is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for distributing network connections among multiple servers or devices. Local caching is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for storing frequently accessed data locally to reduce latency or load times. Content delivery network is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-sd-wan https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 127
An organization recently experienced a ransomware attack. The security team leader is concerned about the attack reoccurring. However, no further security measures have been implemented.
Which of the following processes can be used to identify potential prevention recommendations?
- A. Detection
- B. Recovery
- C. Remediation
- D. Preparation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 128
The Chief information Officer (CIO) asks the system administrator to improve email security at the company based on the following requirements:
* Transaction being requested by unauthorized individuals.
* Complete discretion regarding client names, account numbers, and investment information.
* Malicious attackers using email to malware and ransomeware.
* Exfiltration of sensitive company information.
The cloud-based email solution will provide anti-malware reputation-based scanning, signature-based scanning, and sandboxing. Which of the following is the BEST option to resolve the boar's concerns for this email migration?
- A. Endpoint detection response
- B. Application whitelisting
- C. Data loss prevention
- D. SSL VPN
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) is the best option to resolve the board's concerns for this email migration. DLP is a set of tools and policies that aim to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or exfiltration of sensitive data. DLP can monitor, filter, encrypt, or block email messages based on predefined rules and criteria, such as content, sender, recipient, attachment, etc. DLP can help protect transactions, customer data, and company information from being compromised by malicious actors or accidental leaks. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.csoonline.com/article/3245746/what-is-dlp-data-loss-prevention-and-how-does-it-work.html
NEW QUESTION # 129
A Chief information Security Officer (CISO) is developing corrective-action plans based on the following from a vulnerability scan of internal hosts:
Which of the following MOST appropriate corrective action to document for this finding?
- A. The application developer should use a static code analysis tool to ensure any application code is not vulnerable to buffer overflows.
- B. The system administrator should evaluate dependencies and perform upgrade as necessary.
- C. The product owner should perform a business impact assessment regarding the ability to implement a WAF.
- D. The security operations center should develop a custom IDS rule to prevent attacks buffer overflows against this server.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 130
A company wants to improve Its active protection capabilities against unknown and zero-day malware. Which of the following Is the MOST secure solution?
- A. Application allow list
- B. HIDS
- C. NIDS
- D. Sandbox detonation
- E. Endpoint log collection
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 131
An organization is planning for disaster recovery and continuity of operations.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the following scenarios and instructions. Match each relevant finding to the affected host.
After associating scenario 3 with the appropriate host(s), click the host to select the appropriate corrective action for that finding.
Each finding may be used more than once.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 132
A security analyst is concerned that a malicious piece of code was downloaded on a Linux system. After some research, the analyst determines that the suspected piece of code is performing a lot of input/output (I/O) on the disk drive.
Based on the output above, from which of the following process IDs can the analyst begin an investigation?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 133
Company A acquired Company B.
During an audit, a security engineer found Company B's environment was inadequately patched.
In response, Company A placed a firewall between the two environments until Company B's infrastructure could be integrated into Company A's security program.
Which of the following risk-handling techniques was used?
- A. Accept
- B. Mitigate
- C. Transfer
- D. Avoid
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 134
An investigator is attempting to determine if recent data breaches may be due to issues with a company's web server that offers news subscription services. The investigator has gathered the following data:
* Clients successfully establish TLS connections to web services provided by the server.
* After establishing the connections, most client connections are renegotiated
* The renegotiated sessions use cipher suite SHR.
Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause?
- A. The clients disallow the use of modern cipher suites
- B. A ransomware payload dropper has been installed
- C. The web server is misconfigured to support HTTP/1.1.
- D. An entity is performing downgrade attacks on path
Answer: D
Explanation:
A downgrade attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack that forces two hosts to use an older or weaker version of the TLS protocol or its parameters. The attacker does this by replacing or deleting the STARTTLS command or exploiting the compatibility features of the protocol. The purpose of the attack is to create a pathway for enabling a cryptographic attack that would not be possible in case of a connection that is encrypted over the latest version of TLS protocol. The IOC shows that most client connections are renegotiated after establishing the connections, which could indicate that an entity is performing downgrade attacks on path by interfering with the initial handshake and making the client and server agree on a lower version of TLS or a weaker cipher suite. Verified Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downgrade_attack
https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/10493/why-is-tls-susceptible-to-protocol-downgrade-attacks
https://venafi.com/blog/preventing-downgrade-attacks/
NEW QUESTION # 135
A small business requires a low-cost approach to theft detection for the audio recordings it produces and sells.
Which of the following techniques will MOST likely meet the business's needs?
- A. Implementing steganography
- B. Purchasing and installing a DRM suite
- C. Adding identifying filesystem metadata to the digital audio files
- D. Performing deep-packet inspection of all digital audio files
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 136
A security analyst is reviewing a new IOC in which data is injected into an online process. The IOC shows the data injection could happen in the following ways:
* Five numerical digits followed by a dash, followed by four numerical digits; or
* Five numerical digits
When one of these IOCs is identified, the online process stops working. Which of the following regular expressions should be implemented in the NIPS?
- A. ^\d{4}(-\d{5})?$
- B. ^\d{5}(-\d{4})?$
- C. ^\d{9}$
- D. ^\d{5-4}$
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 137
An organization is planning for disaster recovery and continuity of operations.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the following scenarios and instructions. Match each relevant finding to the affected host.
After associating scenario 3 with the appropriate host(s), click the host to select the appropriate corrective action for that finding.
Each finding may be used more than once.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 138
A recent data breach revealed that a company has a number of files containing customer data across its storage environment. These files are individualized for each employee and are used in tracking various customer orders, inquiries, and issues. The files are not encrypted and can be accessed by anyone. The senior management team would like to address these issues without interrupting existing processes.
Which of the following should a security architect recommend?
- A. A DLP program to identify which files have customer data and delete them
- B. A CMDB to report on systems that are not configured to security baselines
- C. An ERP program to identify which processes need to be tracked
- D. A CRM application to consolidate the data and provision access based on the process and need
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 139
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What is the Certification Path of CompTIA CAS-004 Exam
The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner certification (CAS-004) is a validation of knowledge and skills required of a senior-level IT security professional to establish, implement, maintain and continuously monitor an organization's security program. The exam validates the hands-on skills required of seasoned professionals who have experience in network administration, risk management and compliance these types of questions also covered in CompTIA CAS-004 exam dumps. CompTIA CAS-004 Certification is the first step toward a career in information security, and provides a comprehensive knowledge base to make informed decisions and develop security policies and procedures that meet the needs of an enterprise.
The CompTIA CAS-004 certification is based on the information security foundation concepts provided by the organization. Current reviewing guides are available for the CompTIA Network+ certification. Computing environment regulations like the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) are updated in the different countries. Readiness roles focus on giving people the skills needed to prepare for, perform and succeed in a mission-critical environment. Integrate mobility centre in your IT infrastructure. Transferred frameworks infrastructure automation logon are available for free. The Transferred framework is an open source platform that allows the user to deploy, manage, and maintain secure remote workforce engagement solutions. Pool activities buffer pooling. Potential tenancy domain constantly changes, and this impacts your data.
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