ISACA CISA Exam Info and Free Practice Test | ActualCollection
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As a renowned validation among tech specialists, the Isaca CISA exam can strategically help in plotting your career goals. This certification test is designed to fortify your command in information systems and management. It’s one of the most practical validations for mid-career individuals eyeing to take the next step in their careers.
What Are Topics Tested in ISACA CISA Certification Exam?
The skills tested in the CISA exam include the following domains:
- IT Governance and Management (17%);
- Auditing Process of Information System (21%);
- Information Systems Implementation, Development, and Acquisition (12%);
- Information Assets Protection (27%).
- Business Resilience and Operation of Information Systems (23%);
The first topic is split into two parts. Therefore, candidates will need to demonstrate their skills in planning and executing the IS auditing process. The first subsection includes questions that will test the candidates' ability to manage IS audit standards, and apply the ISACA code of ethics. Also, they will need to show their experience in developing business processes and choose the right types of controls to improve business performance. Besides, they should be experts in risk-based audit planning and develop the right types of audits and assessments. The second subtopic focuses on concepts like audit project management and sampling methodology. Also, examinees should know how to audit evidence collection techniques and work with data analytics, as well as reporting and communication techniques.
Within the second domain, examinees will need to ensure IT governance and IT management. This means that they should be proficient in developing a coherent IT strategy and governance. Also, they should develop IT-related frameworks, standards, procedures, and policies. Candidates should be skilled in ensuring a correct organizational structure and enterprise architecture. They should also show maturity in handling enterprise risk management features and comply with the laws and the organization's standards. When it comes to IT management, applicants should know how to manage IT resources and manage IT service provider acquisition. Last but not least, they should ensure correct monitoring and reporting of IT performance and focus on IT quality assurance and management.
The third chapter focuses on information systems acquisition and development. Candidates should demonstrate their ability to govern and manage projects as well as develop a correct business case and feasibility analysis. Examinees will be required to answer questions related to system development methodologies and control design and identification features. The second subtopic included in this section handles Information Systems implementation. Thus, applicants will need to master testing methodologies and know how to configure and release the right management tools. Candidates should also focus on infrastructure deployment, data conversion, and system migration. The post-implementation review is also an important topic included here.
The fourth chapter concentrates on business resilience and information systems operations. Examinees will need to demonstrate how familiar they are with Business Impact Analysis, system resiliency, Business Continuity Plans, and Disaster Recovery Plans. These skills show the candidates' expertise in coming up with solutions that ensure business continuity in case something doesn't work as planned. This chapter also asks candidates to demonstrate that they know how to manage Common Technology components, master data governance, and end-user computing. Besides, they should be experienced in handling IT Service Level Agreements and Database Management. Applicants should also find the correct answer to questions related to Problem and Incident as well as Systems Performance Management.
The final topic handles information asset protection. Exam-takers should demonstrate that they understand how privacy principles work or if they are able to ensure network and end-point security. Also, they should be experienced in managing virtualization environments and work with Public Key Infrastructure. It is also essential that examinees understand how to manage Physical Access and Environmental controls as well as manage information asset security frameworks, guidelines, and standards. They should also know how to handle different security techniques dedicated to testing and monitoring. Besides, candidates should be proficient in managing incident response and handle evidence collection & forensics.
NEW QUESTION # 342
TEMPEST is a hardware for which of the following purposes?
- A. Virus scanning
- B. Firewalling
- C. Eavedropping
- D. Social engineering
- E. None of the choices.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Any data that is transmitted over a network is at some risk of being eavesdropped, or even modified by a malicious person. Even machines that operate as a closed system can be eavesdropped upon via monitoring the faint electromagnetic transmissions generated by the hardware such as TEMPEST.
NEW QUESTION # 343
What type of BCP test uses actual resources to simulate a system crash and validate the plan's effectiveness?
- A. Parallel
- B. Preparedness
- C. Paper
- D. Walk-through
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Of the three major types of BCP tests (paper, walk-through, and preparedness), only the preparedness test uses actual resources to simulate a system crash and validate the plan's effectiveness.
NEW QUESTION # 344
What are intrusion-detection systems (IDS) primarily used for?
- A. To identify AND prevent intrusion attempts to a network
- B. Forensic incident response
- C. To prevent intrusion attempts to a network
- D. To identify intrusion attempts to a network
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Intrusion-detection systems (IDS) are used to identify intrusion attempts on a network.
NEW QUESTION # 345
An organization conducted an exercise to test the security awareness level of users by sending an email offering a cash reward 10 those who click on a link embedded in the body of the email. Which of the following metrics BEST indicates the effectiveness of awareness training?
- A. The number of users forwarding the email to their business unit managers
- B. The number of users clicking on the link to learn more about the sender of the email
- C. The number of users reporting receipt of the email to the information security team
- D. The number of users deleting the email without reporting because it is a phishing email
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 346
Which of the following BEST reduces the ability of one device to capture the packets that are meant for
another device?
- A. Routers
- B. Switches
- C. Firewalls
- D. Filters
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Switches are at the lowest level of network security and transmit a packet to the device to which it is
addressed. This reduces the ability of one device to capture the packets that are meant for another device.
Filters allow for some basic isolation of network traffic based on the destination addresses. Routers allow
packets to be given or denied access based on the addresses of the sender and receiver and the type of
packet. Firewalls are a collection of computer and network equipment used to allow communications to
flow out of the organization and restrict communications flowing into the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 347
Providing security certification for a new system should include which of the following prior to the system's implementation?
- A. Testing of the system within the production environment
- B. An evaluation of the configuration management practices
- C. External audit sign-off on financial controls
- D. End-user authorization to use the system in production
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 348
Which of the following is often used as a detection and deterrent control against Internet attacks?
- A. Honeypots
- B. VLAN
- C. VPN
- D. CCTV
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Honeypots are often used as a detection and deterrent control against Internet attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 349
Which of the following forms of evidence for the auditor would be considered the MOST reliable?
- A. The results of a test performed by an IS auditor
- B. An oral statement from theauditee
- C. A confirmation letter received from an outside source
- D. An internally generated computer accounting report
Answer: C
Explanation:
Evidence obtained from outside sources is usually more reliable than that obtained from within the organization. Confirmation letters received from outside parties, such as those used to verify accounts receivable balances, are usually highly reliable. Testing performed by an auditor may not be reliable, if the auditor did not have a good understanding of the technical area under review.
NEW QUESTION # 350
Over the long term, which of the following has the greatest potential to improve the security incident response process?
- A. Postevent reviews by the incident response team
- B. Documenting responses to an incident
- C. Ongoing security training for users
- D. A walkthrough review of incident response procedures
Answer: A
Explanation:
Postevent reviews to find the gaps and shortcomings in the actual incident response processes will help to improve the process over time. Choices A, C and D are desirable actions, but postevent reviews are the most reliable mechanism for improving security incident response processes.
NEW QUESTION # 351
In an annual audit cycle, the audit of an organization's IT department resulted in many findings. Which of the following would be the MOST important consideration when planning the next audit?
- A. Verifying that all recommendations have been implemented
- B. Following up on the status of all recommendations
- C. Limiting the review to the deficient areas
- D. Postponing the review until all of the findings have been rectified
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
NEW QUESTION # 352
An organization shares some of its customers' personally Identifiable Information (PH) with third-party suppliers for business purposes. What is MOST important for the IS auditor to evaluate to ensure that risk associated with leakage of privacy-related data during transmission is effectively managed?
- A. The third party's privacy and data security policies
- B. Nondisclosure and indemnity agreements
- C. Service and operational level agreements
- D. Encrypting and masking of customer data
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 353
An IS audit learn is evaluating the documentation related to the most recent application user-access review performed by IT and business management It is determined that the user list was not system-generated. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern?
- A. Source of the user list reviewed
- B. Completeness of the user list reviewed
- C. Availability of the user list reviewed
- D. Confidentiality of the user list reviewed
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 354
Which of the following is a concern when data are transmitted through Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption, implemented on a trading partner's server?
- A. Messages are subjected to wire tapping.
- B. The communication may not be secure.
- C. Data might not reach the intended recipient.
- D. The organization does not have control over encryption.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The SSL security protocol provides data encryption, server authentication, message integrity and optional client authentication. Because SSL is built into all major browsers and web servers, simply installing a digital certificate turns on the SSL capabilities. SSL encrypts the datum while it is being transmitted over the internet. The encryption is done in the background, without any interaction from the user; consequently, there is no password to remember. The other choices are incorrect. Since the communication between client and server is encrypted, the confidentiality of information is not affected by wire tapping. Since SSL does the client authentication, only the intended recipient will receive the decrypted data. All data sent over an encrypted SSL connection are protected with a mechanism to detect tampering, i.e., automatically determining whether data has been altered in transit.
NEW QUESTION # 355
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to verify after finding repeated unauthorized
access attempts were recorded on a security report?
- A. There is evidence that the incident was investigated
- B. A comprehensive access policy has been established
- C. Password reset requests have been confirmed as legitimate
- D. System configuration changes are properly tracked
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: The process of Auditing Information System
NEW QUESTION # 356
Which of the following is widely accepted as one of the critical components in networking management?
- A. Proxy server troubleshooting
- B. Topological mappings
- C. Configuration management
- D. Application of monitoring tools
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Configuration management is widely accepted as one of the key components of any network, since it
establishes how the network will function internally and externally, it also deals with the management of
configuration and monitoring performance. Topological mappings provide outlines of the components of the
network and its connectivity. Application monitoring is not essential and proxy server troubleshooting is
used for troubleshooting purposes.
NEW QUESTION # 357
Which of the following is The MOST effective accuracy control for entry of a valid numeric part number?
- A. Comparison to historical order pattern
- B. Online review of description
- C. Hash totals
- D. Self-checking digit
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 358
What type of risk results when an IS auditor uses an inadequate test procedure and concludes that material errors do not exist when errors actually exist?
- A. Detection risk
- B. Business risk
- C. Residual risk
- D. Inherent risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Detection risk results when an IS auditor uses an inadequate test procedure and concludes that material errors do not exist when errors actually exist.
NEW QUESTION # 359
The GREATEST risk posed by an improperly implemented intrusion prevention system (IPS) is:
- A. the blocking of critical systems or services due to false triggers.
- B. decreased network performance due to IPS traffic.
- C. that there will be too many alerts for system administrators to verify.
- D. reliance on specialized expertise within the IT organization.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An intrusion prevention system (IPS) prevents a connection or service based on how it is programmed to react to specific incidents. If the packets are coming from a spoofed address and the IPS is triggered based on previously defined behavior, it maybiock the service or connection of a critical internal system. The other choices are risks that are not as severe as blocking critical systems or services due to false triggers.
NEW QUESTION # 360
Which of the following should be the MOST important criterion in evaluating a backup solution for sensitive data that must be retained for a long period of time due to regulatory requirements?
- A. Media reliability
- B. Restore window
- C. Full backup window
- D. Media costs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To comply with regulatory requirements, the media should be reliable enough to ensure an organization's ability to recovery the data should they be required for any reason. Media price is a consideration, but should not be more important than the ability to provide the required reliability. Choices A and C are less critical than reliability.
NEW QUESTION # 361
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