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PRMIA 8011 Exam Syllabus Topics:

PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following risks and reasons justify the use of scenario analysis in operational risk modeling:
I). Risks for which no internal loss data is available
II). Risks that are foreseeable but have no precedent, internally or externally
III). Risks for which objective assessments can be made by experts
IV). Risks that are known to exist, but for which no reliable external or internal losses can be analyzed
V). Reducing the complexity of having to fit statistical models to internal and external loss data
VI). Managing the capital estimation process as to produce estimates in line with management's desired capital buffers.

A) All of the above
B) V
C) I, II and III
D) I, II, III and IV

2. Altman's Z-score does not consider which of the following ratios:

A) Market capitalization to debt
B) Working capital to total assets
C) Sales to total assets
D) Net income to total assets

3. Calculate the 1-year 99% credit VaR of a portfolio of two bonds, each with a value of $1m, and the probability of default of 1% each over the next year. Assume the recovery rate to be zero, and the defaults of the two bonds to be uncorrelated to each other.

A) 0
B) 980000
C) 20000
D) 1980000

4. Calculate the 99% 1-day Value at Risk of a portfolio worth $10m with expected returns of 10% annually and volatility of 20%.

A) 2326000
B) 294218
C) 290218
D) 126491

5. For a FX forward contract, what would be the worst time for a counterparty to default (in terms of the maximum likely credit exposure)

A) Right after inception
B) Indeterminate from the given information
C) At maturity
D) Roughly three-quarters of the way towards maturity

Solutions: